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8 AWS CloudOps Engineer Practice Questions That Mirror the Real Exam

Cloud certifications·8 min read·PractiseExam

Here are 8 multiple-choice questions designed to mirror the difficulty, style, and domain coverage of the AWS CloudOps Engineer (SysOps Administrator) exam. They focus on operational best practices, troubleshooting, and cost/performance optimization.


Introduction: These questions test your practical knowledge of operating, managing, and troubleshooting AWS environments. They cover key domains including monitoring, high availability, security, and cost optimization. Pay close attention to the specific wording, as the correct answer often hinges on the most efficient or cost-effective operational choice. Before moving on, consider reading How Hard Is AWS CloudOps Engineer, Really? An Honest Difficulty Rating.


Question 1

A company is running a production web application on an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). During a recent deployment, the new application version started failing health checks, but the Auto Scaling group continued to launch new instances with the broken code, causing a full outage. Which combination of actions would BEST prevent this from happening in the future? (Choose two.)

A. Enable EC2 instance termination protection on all instances.

B. Configure the Auto Scaling group to use a launch template with a new AMI ID for each deployment.

C. Use a deployment strategy that creates a new Auto Scaling group (ASG) and shifts traffic only after the new ASG passes health checks.

D. Set the ALB's healthy threshold to a lower value to fail faster.

E. Use an AWS CloudFormation stack update with a CREATE_PAUSE signal to wait for a manual approval.

Answer: B, C

Explanation: Using a new AMI ID in a launch template ensures new instances boot with the new code, but the core issue is the deployment strategy. Option C (e.g., using AWS CodeDeploy with a blue/green or canary strategy) validates the new ASG against the ALB before shifting traffic, preventing the broken code from receiving production traffic. Option B is a prerequisite for a clean rollback and ensures the ASG doesn't launch mixed versions. The other options do not address the deployment validation logic.


Question 2

A SysOps administrator notices that an Amazon RDS for MySQL database is experiencing high CPU utilization and latency spikes every 15 minutes. The administrator suspects a specific recurring batch job is the cause. Which steps should be taken to identify the exact queries causing the issue?

A. Enable Performance Insights and view the top load by SQL statements.

B. Enable Multi-AZ failover to switch to the standby replica.

C. Enable the slow query log and use CloudWatch Logs Insights to parse for the 15-minute interval.

D. Increase the instance size to handle the load.

Answer: A

Explanation: Amazon RDS Performance Insights provides a database performance dashboard that visualizes the database load and allows you to drill down into the specific SQL queries causing the load. This is the most direct and efficient method for pinpointing problematic queries. The slow query log (C) helps but requires manual parsing and doesn't correlate load with queries as effectively as Performance Insights. Multi-AZ (B) is for high availability, not performance analysis.


Question 3

An application running on EC2 instances requires read/write access to a shared file system that must be mounted across multiple Availability Zones in the same region for high availability. Which AWS service should be used?

A. Amazon S3 with a VPC endpoint.

B. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) with One Zone storage.

C. Amazon EBS Multi-Attach volume. Looking for more detail? See How to Pass AWS CloudOps Engineer on Your First Attempt.

D. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) with Standard storage class.

Answer: D

Explanation: Amazon EFS is a managed NFS file system that is designed to be mounted across multiple AZs. The Standard storage class provides data redundancy across multiple AZs, ensuring high availability. EBS Multi-Attach (C) only works within a single Availability Zone. S3 (A) is an object store, not a POSIX file system. EFS One Zone (B) is not highly available as it resides in a single AZ.


Question 4

A security audit requires that all new S3 buckets be encrypted by default. A CloudOps Engineer must implement a preventative control to ensure compliance. What is the MOST effective way to enforce this requirement?

A. Use AWS Config managed rule s3-bucket-server-side-encryption-enabled.

B. Create an S3 bucket policy that denies s3:PutObject if encryption is not specified.

C. Use AWS Organizations Service Control Policy (SCP) to deny s3:CreateBucket if x-amz-server-side-encryption header is not present.

D. Enable default encryption on every new bucket manually after creation.

Answer: C

Explanation: An SCP at the organization level is a preventative guardrail that can deny the CreateBucket API call if the encryption parameter is absent. This is a resource control policy that cannot be overridden by the account owner. AWS Config (A) is a detective control (it identifies non-compliance after the fact). A bucket policy (B) applies to PutObject, but the requirement is about the bucket itself. Manual enforcement (D) is error-prone and not scalable.


Question 5

A company is using a single AWS account and wants to ensure that an EC2 instance does not have a public IP address assigned automatically. However, the instance still needs outbound internet access to download patches. What is the MOST operationally efficient solution?

A. Launch the instance in a private subnet and attach an Elastic IP address.

B. Launch the instance in a public subnet and rely on a NAT Gateway.

C. Launch the instance in a private subnet and configure a NAT Gateway in a public subnet.

D. Launch the instance in a public subnet and disable the AssociatePublicIpAddress flag.

Answer: C

Explanation: The best practice is to place the instance in a private subnet (no direct internet route) and route outbound traffic through a NAT Gateway located in a public subnet. This ensures the instance has no public IP but can access the internet. Option A is incorrect because an Elastic IP gives it a public IP. Option B is incorrect because a public subnet can auto-assign public IPs. Option D is less secure and less standard than using a private subnet.


Question 6

An application stores data in an Amazon S3 bucket. The data is accessed frequently for 30 days, then rarely accessed for the next 6 months, and finally must be archived for 7 years for compliance. What is the MOST cost-effective lifecycle policy?

A. Transition to S3 Standard-IA after 30 days, then to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 180 days.

B. Transition to S3 One Zone-IA after 30 days, then to S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval after 180 days. This topic pairs well with 8 AWS Developer Associate Practice Questions That Mirror the Real Exam.

C. Transition to S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval after 30 days, then to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 365 days.

D. Transition to S3 Standard-IA after 90 days, then to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 365 days.

Answer: A

Explanation: The optimal strategy is to move data to a lower-cost storage class as access patterns change. Standard-IA is appropriate after 30 days of frequent access for infrequent access. After 180 days (6 months), transitioning to Glacier Deep Archive is the cheapest storage option for long-term archival (7 years). Option C uses Glacier Instant Retrieval which is more expensive than Standard-IA for infrequent access. Option D delays the transition unnecessarily, incurring higher costs.


Question 7

A SysOps administrator is troubleshooting an issue where an Application Load Balancer (ALB) is returning HTTP 503 errors. The target group shows the instances as "OutOfService". The instances are passing the EC2 status checks but failing the ALB health checks. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. The security group for the ALB does not allow inbound traffic on port 80.

B. The instances are in a different Availability Zone than the ALB.

C. The security group attached to the instances does not allow inbound traffic from the ALB's security group.

D. The ALB's idle timeout is set too low.

Answer: C

Explanation: The most common cause of health check failures is a misconfigured security group on the target instances. The instance's security group must allow inbound traffic from the ALB's security group (or the VPC CIDR) on the health check port. If the EC2 status checks pass, the OS is running, but the application isn't reachable from the ALB. Option A refers to the ALB's own security group (which must allow traffic from the internet), not the instance's. Option B is incorrect as ALBs are regional and can route to instances in multiple AZs. Option D relates to connection persistence, not health checks.


Question 8

A company is running a critical batch processing job on a single EC2 instance. The instance is currently in a stopped state. The CloudOps team needs to ensure the instance starts automatically at a specific time every day. What is the MOST reliable and cost-effective way to achieve this?

A. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule with a cron expression to send an EC2 StartInstances action via AWS Systems Manager.

B. Create a scheduled scaling policy for an Auto Scaling group.

C. Create an Amazon EventBridge rule with a cron expression to target the EC2 StartInstances API call.

D. Use a Lambda function that uses the AWS SDK to start the instance, triggered by a CloudWatch alarm.

Answer: C

Explanation: Amazon EventBridge supports native AWS API targets. You can create a rule with a cron schedule (e.g., 0 8 * * ? *) that directly targets the EC2 service and calls StartInstances, specifying the instance ID. This requires no additional compute resources (like Lambda) and is the most direct, reliable, and cost-effective method. Option A is over-engineered (SSM is not needed for a simple start). Option B is for ASGs, not single instances. Option D is less direct and relies on an alarm, not a schedule.


Closing Paragraph: These questions represent the analytical and operational focus required for the AWS CloudOps Engineer certification. Mastery requires not just knowing the services, but understanding the trade-offs between cost, complexity, and reliability in real-world scenarios. Continuous practice with scenario-based questions is key to success.

After you finish these questions, use the free AWS Certified CloudOps Engineer - Associate readiness check for a quick look at your weakest topic.

Build the mental endurance you will need on exam day — full-length AWS Certified CloudOps Engineer - Associate mock tests are the best training ground.

To fit full-length mock tests into your schedule, the free AWS Certified CloudOps Engineer - Associate study plan can give you a week-by-week plan that adapts to the time you have.

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