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Cisco CyberOps Associate Sample Questions With Full Explanations

Security certifications·8 min read·PractiseExam

Here are 8 multiple-choice questions designed to match the style, difficulty, and domain coverage of the Cisco CyberOps Associate (200-201) exam.


Intro: These questions are designed to test your understanding of core cybersecurity operations concepts, including security monitoring, host-based analysis, network intrusion analysis, and incident response. They reflect the critical thinking required for the CBROPS exam, where you must not only know definitions but also apply them to practical scenarios. You might also find CISA Sample Questions With Full Explanations helpful.


Question 1

A security analyst is investigating an alert involving a workstation that is beaconing to an external IP address every 60 seconds, regardless of user activity. The analyst suspects the host is part of a botnet. Which two pieces of evidence would most strongly support this conclusion?

A. The communication uses TCP port 443, and the payload is encrypted.

B. The beacon interval is regular, and the destination IP is on a known threat intelligence blocklist.

C. The host has high CPU utilization, and the user reports slow performance.

D. The traffic originates from a web browser, and the destination is a cloud provider.

Answer: B

Explanation: A regular, predictable beacon interval combined with a destination IP listed on a threat intelligence feed is a classic indicator of command-and-control (C2) communication. While encryption (A) and high CPU (C) can be symptoms, they are not definitive on their own. Traffic to a cloud provider (D) is common for legitimate business applications.


Question 2

A CyberOps analyst is analyzing a PCAP file in Wireshark. They filter for http.request and see a GET request for /login.php. Following the TCP stream, they see the credentials username=admin&password=LetMeIn123 in plaintext. Which type of attack is best exemplified by this data?

A. SQL Injection

B. Credential Stuffing

C. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

D. Session Hijacking

Answer: B

Explanation: The PCAP shows a single, successful attempt to use stolen or guessed credentials (admin/LetMeIn123) against a login form. Credential stuffing is the automated injection of stolen username/password pairs. SQL injection (A) would involve SQL syntax in the parameters. MITM (C) and Session Hijacking (D) involve active interception or theft of a session token, which is not evident here.


Question 3

Which security principle is most directly violated when a user is granted access to a network share containing HR records, but their job role only requires access to the marketing drive?

A. Defense in Depth

B. Least Privilege

C. Separation of Duties

D. Non-Repudiation

Answer: B

Explanation: The principle of Least Privilege dictates that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their job functions. Granting access to HR data when only marketing data is needed violates this principle. Defense in Depth (A) is about layered security, Separation of Duties (C) is about splitting critical tasks among multiple people, and Non-Repudiation (D) is about proving an action occurred.


Question 4

An analyst is examining logs from a Linux server and sees the following entry: Jan 11 14:22:01 webserver sudo: pam_unix(sudo:auth): authentication failure; logname=root uid=0 euid=0 tty=/dev/pts/2 ruser=root rhost=192.168.1.50 user=root. What does this log entry indicate?

A. A successful root login from a remote host.

B. A failed attempt to use sudo by a user on the local terminal. For more on this topic, see our guide on CKS Sample Questions With Full Explanations.

C. A successful sudo command execution by user root.

D. A failed remote authentication attempt to switch to the root user via sudo.

Answer: D

Explanation: The key phrase is authentication failure. The rhost=192.168.1.50 indicates a remote source, and user=root shows the target user for the sudo command. Therefore, it is a failed remote attempt to gain root privileges via sudo. It is not a success (A, C), and the rhost field proves it is not local (B).


Question 5

According to the NIST SP 800-61 incident response lifecycle, which phase involves actions like preserving evidence, identifying the root cause, and implementing safeguards to prevent the incident from recurring?

A. Preparation

B. Detection and Analysis

C. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

D. Post-Incident Activity

Answer: C

Explanation: The "Containment, Eradication, and Recovery" phase is where the primary technical work happens: isolating the threat (containment), removing it (eradication), and restoring systems (recovery). While root cause analysis is formalized in "Post-Incident Activity" (D), the immediate action to prevent recurrence (like patching a vulnerability) is part of the C/E/R phase. Preparation (A) is the setup phase, and Detection (B) is the identification phase.


Question 6

A network engineer configures a SPAN port on a switch to send a copy of all traffic from a specific VLAN to an intrusion detection system (IDS) sensor. What is a primary limitation of using a SPAN port for security monitoring compared to a network tap?

A. SPAN ports cannot monitor traffic on a specific VLAN.

B. A network tap can filter traffic based on signatures, while a SPAN port cannot.

C. SPAN ports may drop packets under high load conditions due to oversubscription.

D. A network tap is a software-based solution, while a SPAN port is hardware-based.

Answer: C

Explanation: SPAN ports are prone to packet drops during periods of high traffic because the destination port (where the IDS is connected) has a limited bandwidth, and the switch may not be able to replicate all traffic to it. Network taps are physical devices that provide a full-duplex copy of the traffic without introducing a single point of failure or oversubscription issues. SPAN ports can monitor VLANs (A), and neither taps nor SPAN ports perform signature filtering (B).


Question 7

A SOC analyst is reviewing an alert regarding a suspicious file downloaded from an email attachment. The analyst runs the file command in a sandbox and gets the output: PE32 executable (GUI) Intel 80386, for MS Windows. Which type of analysis is the analyst performing?

A. Dynamic Analysis

B. Static Analysis

C. Memory Analysis

D. Exploit Analysis

Answer: B You can explore this further in Cisco CyberOps Associate in 2026: Everything That Changed.

Explanation: Static analysis involves examining the file without executing it. Using tools like the file command to determine the file type, checking hashes, and reviewing strings are all forms of static analysis. Dynamic analysis (A) involves executing the file in a controlled environment to observe its behavior. Memory analysis (C) focuses on RAM dumps, and Exploit analysis (D) is a sub-category of dynamic analysis focused on how vulnerabilities are leveraged.


Question 8

During an investigation, an analyst must retrieve the contents of a specific file that was opened by a process. Which Windows artifact would be the most direct source of evidence to determine which process accessed a specific file?

A. The Windows Event Log (Security log)

B. The Prefetch files

C. The $USN Journal (NTFS Change Journal)

D. The Windows Registry (SYSTEM hive)

Answer: C

Explanation: The NTFS Change Journal ($USN Journal) records all changes to files on an NTFS volume, including file creation, deletion, and modification. It can be used to track file access patterns and correlate them with processes. Prefetch files (B) track application startup, not file access. The Security log (A) primarily records logon events, not file-level access. The Registry (D) stores system configuration, not a list of file accesses.


Question 9

An analyst is examining a network flow log and sees a long-lived connection from an internal host to an external server on TCP port 22. The connection has been active for 3 hours and shows a high volume of data transferred from the external server to the internal host. Which protocol is being used, and what is the most likely security concern?

A. HTTP; the host is downloading a large file.

B. SSH; the host is being used for unauthorized data exfiltration.

C. FTP; the host is uploading sensitive data.

D. Telnet; an attacker is controlling the host remotely.

Answer: B

Explanation: TCP port 22 is the standard port for SSH. SSH is encrypted, so the analyst cannot see the contents. A long-lived connection with a high volume of inbound data (from external to internal) is a strong indicator of data exfiltration, where the attacker is pulling data from the compromised host. HTTP (A) is port 80/443, FTP (C) is port 21, and Telnet (D) is port 23, which is unencrypted and rarely used for exfiltration.


Question 10

A CyberOps analyst is creating a new SIEM correlation rule. The rule must trigger an alert when a single source IP performs a port scan against more than 50 distinct destination IPs within a 5-minute window. Which data model component is most critical for this rule to function efficiently?

A. The normalization of log data into a common schema.

B. The ability to perform historical searches on archived logs.

C. The correlation engine's ability to aggregate and count events in real-time.

D. The integration of threat intelligence feeds into the SIEM.

Answer: C

Explanation: The rule requires real-time aggregation (counting distinct destination IPs) and correlation over a time window. The correlation engine is the component designed to process incoming events, group them by source IP, and count unique destinations to trigger an alert. Normalization (A) is important for parsing data, but the core logic is the aggregation. Historical searches (B) are for post-incident analysis, and threat intel (D) would be used for matching against known bad IPs, not for detecting scanning behavior.


Closing: These questions highlight the need to apply fundamental concepts to practical scenarios. Remember to focus on the why behind each answer, as the actual exam often asks you to analyze a situation and choose the best course of action based on your understanding of the underlying principles.

When you start turning these explanations into a review schedule, a free Cisco CCNA Cybersecurity study plan can help you cover each domain in the time you have.

Treat Cisco CCNA Cybersecurity practice exam questions as your final checkpoint before registering for the exam.

Once you have worked through the questions, a free Cisco CCNA Cybersecurity readiness check can show which exam topics still need attention before you book.

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